Hematology Final Exam Review

Hematology Final Exam Review

Question Answer
What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells? Use the 100x and open diaphragm
Which of the following behaviors is a violation of standard precautions? Not treating everyone as infected
Standards and calibrators differ from control materials because standards are solutions that have a known amount of analyte used to calibrate…controls are used to monitor the performance after calibration
Proper mixing of samples and timely delivery of samples to the laboratory are both examples of what type of lab variables? Pre-analytical
A delta check is a historical reference on samples run in the laboratories. Once a sample fails a delta check, the most obvious corrective action is to: verify patient ID
Common examples of postanalytical variables include: delta check, released results, critical results called, reflex testing indicated, specimen checked for clots
Error analysis, standard protocols, and turnaround time are all part of the: Quality assurance
The average of a group of data points is defined as the: mean
What is the average M:E ratio for normal adult bone marrow? 3:1 to 4:1
The key organs involved in extramedullary hematopoiesis include the liver and spleen
Which is the best test to assess the bone marrow's response to anemic stress? Retic count
Antibody-coated red cells that have their antibodies stripped in the spleen usually reappear in the circulation as: spherocytes
A peripheral blood indicator of ineffective bone marrow is: lack of polychromasia
The hormone responsible for signaling red cell development in the bone marrow is: EPO (Erythropoietin)
The preffered site for bone marrow aspiration and biposy? illiac crest
A wright-stained smear of a patient with an elevated reticulocyte count should show: Polychromasia
The erythrocyte stage that marks the beginning of hemoglobinization is called: polychromatophilic normoblast
One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stages is: a round nucleus
The red cell protein that is responsible for deformability and flexibility of the red cell is: spectrin
Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which of these abnormal cell morphologies? target cells
The hemoglobin molecule consists of: 4 molecules…4 globin chains4 iron-containing heme groups
The basic pathophysiology of the thalassemic conditions is: decreased or absent globin chain synthesis
Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as: nuclear development & hemoglobin development that is unbalanced
Polychromatophilic macrocytes in the peripheral smear are defined as: reticulocytes
The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin is Heinz bodies
The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by the: reticulocyte count
When hemolysis is produced by intravascular fragmentation of red cells, which red cell morphology will be produced? Schistocyte
Reversible sickled cells are described as having: Half moon shape with rounded end
The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is: orthochromic normoblast
What percentage of hemoglobin is synthesized in the reticulocyte stage? 35%
Epsilon and Zeta chains are part of which of the hemoglobins? Portland
Fetal hemoglobin consists of which chains? 2 alpha, 2 gamma
The hemoglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the: relationship of pulmonar and venous circulation
Which of the following abnormal hemoglobins will result in a cyanotic condition? methemoglobin
How many genes are responsible for the production of alpha chains? 2
Which clinical condition is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis? hemoglobinuria
Which organs are the most affected during extravascular lysis? spleen and liver
Storage iron is usually determined by the: serum ferritin level
In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults that is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through: recycling of iron
The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed: iron depletion
The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is: Bart's Hydrops Fetalis
Which inclusion is associated with a "pitted" golf ball appearance? Hgb H inclusion
Failure to thrive, bossed skull, severe anemia, and splenomegaly are all symptoms of which of the following disorders? Thalassemia major
One of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is: iron overload
On electrophoresis, the majority hemoglobin for individuals with thalassemia major is: Hgb F
An appropriate M:E ratio in the case of megaloblastic anemia would be: 1:3
Which morphological features are classic in the megaloblastic anemias? Macroovalocytes
Ineffective erythropoiesis is defined as: the destruction of RBC precursors
Spherocytes do not function well in the slenic environment because the: osmotic environment of spherocytes is impaired
Cholelithiasis is a frequent complication of patients with hereditary spherocytosis because: chronic hemolysis causes gallstones to form
Spherocytes differ from normal cells in what ways? Decreased central pallor, Decreased surface ratio, Decreased resistance to hypotonic saline
The RBC inclusions that are composed of denatured hemoglobin are called: Heinz bodies
Red cells that are resistant to malaria, rigid, and spoon shaped are termed: Southeast Asian Ovalocytes
One of the least severe clinical manifestations of G6PD deficiency is: congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia
An anemia that manifests as decreased marrow cellularity, cytopenias in two cellular elements, and a reticulocytopenia is appropraitely termed: aplastic anemia
The hemoglobin variant that is seen frequently in the Southeast Asian population , shows a microcytic picture, and migrates with Hgb C at pH 8.6 is: Hgb E
A patient with sickle cell anemia may develop cardiopulmonary disease due to: high blood viscocity
Autosplenectomy is characteristic of: sickle cell anemia
When the bone marrow temporarily ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient, an_______ crisis has occured. Aplastic
Sickle cell disease is best differentiated from sickle cell trait by: hemoglobin electrophoresis
Which of the "poikilocytes" is classically associated with hemoglobinopathies and liver disease? target cells
The hemolytic anemias are generally classified morphologically as: normochromic, normocytic
Painful swelling of hands and feet caused by sickle cells in the microcirculation of sickle cell infants is termed: Dactylitis
The hemoglobin that cannot be separated from Hgb S through electrophresis in buffer at pH 8.6 is: Hgb D
Lymphocyte concentrations in peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval? immediately after birth
The marginating pool of neutrophils is located: on the blood vessel walls
CD markers associated with myelocyte? CD45, CD33, CD13
One of the primary glands in the infant responsible for lymphocyte origination is the: thymus gland
The initial appearance of specific granulation in the granulocytic series is predominantly seen in the: myelocyte
The amount of time a granulocyte spends in the circulation before migrating into the tissues is normally: 48 hours
In automated hematology, what is the definition of delta check? comparison to previous values
Features of the lymphatic system: blood filtration, antibody generation, lymphopoiesis
Opsonization of neutrophils is defined as: preparing foreign bodies for phagocytosis
A white cell disorder that presents with a low white cell count, thrombocytopenia, and a mulberry-like inclusion in the monocytes is: Human Ehrlichiosis
Which mechanisms are usually associated with neutropenia: Decreased production in BM, Impaired release from the BM, Increased destruction.
An autosomal disorder that manifests itself with large lysosomal inclusion, recurring infections, and albinism is: Chediak-Higashi Syndrome
The best corrective action to take for a patient who exhibits platelet satellitism in their peripheral blood smear is to: redraw in sodium citrate tube
A patient who has persistent leukocytosis, Dohle bodies, and an elevated LAP score most likely has: Leukemoid reaction
The monoclonal marker that is often positive in T-ALL is: CD7
The t(15:17)(q22:q12) is associated with which leukemias? Acute promyleocytic leukemia
Acute leukemic processes are marked by: rapid onset anemia, thrombocytopenia
Which of the following is characteristic of Auer rods? composed of fused primary granules
Which CD marker best represents the earliest progenitor cells? CD34
Acute leukemia is characterized by what % of blasts? hypercellular bne marrow with less than 20% blasts
Pure erythroid leukemia is defined as: Erythroid precursors greater than 80%
Tyrosine kinase is an important mediator in leukocyte metabolic pathways because it suppresses: apoptosis
A term describing a peripheral blood finding of leukocytosis with a shift to the left accompanied by occasional nucleated red cells and platelet abnormalities is: leukoerythroblastic
The accelerated phase of chronic myeloid leukemia is marked by: increased basophils
Myocardial infarctions, transient ischemic attacks, and deep vein thrombosis are more likely to be complications of: Polycythemia Vera
A "dry tap" is a characteristic of myeloid fibrosis with myeloid metaplasia due to: increased infiltration of fibrotic elements
What effect does the pH chromosome have on the prognosis of patients with chronic myelocytic leukemia? better if the pH chromosome is present
The LAP is helpful in distinguishing: leukemoid reaction from CGL
A high-risk factor for the diagnosis of essential thrombocytopenia is: platelet count greater than 600,000
Causes of secondary erythrocytosis: hypertension, smoking, alcohol
Which genetic alterations is associated with a poor prognosis in CLL? trisomy 12
Hypogammaglobulinemia is a significant feature in half of patients with CLL. This complication can lead to: Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
A peripheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an oviod nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in: Sezary Syndrome
A significant feature of hairy cell leukemia not seen in other acute leukemias is: pancytopenia
The most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma: Rouleaux formation
An abnormal proliferation of dysfuctional B lymphocytes is commonly associated with: CLL
Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia: are often immunocompromised
A new treatment for multiple myeloma, which was once banned from use for pregnant women is: Thalidomide
The most common hematological malignancy in the adult population is: MDS
Features of the myelodysplastic syndromes: anemia, dysplasia, hypercellular marrow
The morphological classification of anemia in the myelodyplastic syndromes is: macrocytic, normochromic
The most effective means of treating iron overload in the myelodysplastic syndrome is: iron chelation therapy
The blast count in most individuals with MDS is: less than 20%
Reticulocytopenia is a feature of MDS. Which one of the following is the mechanism behind this process? Marrow aplasia
One of the key white cell features in MDS is: Pseudo-Pelger Huet
Which of the following chromosome disorders in MDS has a poor predictive influence? chromosome 7 disorder
Dysplastic changes of platelets frequently seen in MDS include: granulation, micromegakaryocytes, giant platelets
In adults, what is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia? chronic blood loss
The red cell morphology associated with is: tear drop
A patient with AML is likely to have a cytochemical panel that is positive for: MPO, SBB, Specific Esterase

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